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SYPHILIS (treponema pallidum) - VDRL, RPR, TPHA; detection from blood and other fluids

Syphilis: bacterial STI caused by Treponema pallidum; results in substantial morbidity and mortality; transmission: sexual contact (majority) with infectious lesions of the mucous membranes/abraded skin, via blood transfusion, or transplacentally from a pregnant woman to her fetus. The genus Treponema belongs to the family Spirochaetaceae and has as a representative species Treponema pallidum, the etiological agent of syphilis. Treponema pallidum is a thin, tightly coiled spirochete (pallidum: subspecies).

On Treponema pallidum there is no gram staining, hence special staining and examination techniques are required for highlighting. It is microaerophilic and cannot grow on standard culture media. 

PATHOGENESIS:

Infection begins when T. pallidum penetrates the host, usually through intact or abraded mucous membranes; virulence factors: hemolysins, membrane proteins allowing for permeability of nutrients but inaccessible to antibody, ligands that allow cytoadhesion; the ensuing inflammation is responsible for most of the disease pathology. In the early disease, spirochetes can be found in the chancre, the usual first manifestation of syphilis. Invasion into the bloodstream and lymphatics occurs within hours to days of penetration of T. pallidum as evidenced by the fact that patients who received blood transfusions from syphilitic donors in the seronegative incubation period have become infected. All organs of the body can be invaded but the skin, lymph nodes, and the central nervous system (CNS) are the sites most often invaded. In the skin, T. pallidum is found in the dermal-epidermal junction zone or throughout the dermis. 

Both humoral and cell mediated immune responses are mounted against T. pallidum. At all stages of infection, there are local cellular infiltrates consisting of lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells at the sites of disease. In primary syphilis, CD4+ T cells and macrophages are the predominate cell type while in secondary syphilis CD8+ cells predominate. In both primary and secondary syphilis, there is increased expression of TH1 cytokines IL-2 and IFN-Gamma. Cell mediated and humoral immune responses peak in secondary syphilis. Spirochetes may remain alive and continue to replicate in immunologically sequestered sites in the body even with a brisk initial immune response and no outward clinical manifestations of disease in at least 1 of 4 persons who are not treated. In late latent syphilis, after many years of latency, treponemes begin to multiple and Th1 lymphocytes produce high levels of nitric oxide and IL-12 instead of Il-2 and IFN. 


LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS: 

- bacteriological - microscopic examination; pathological products from patient;

- serological - changes in the patient's serum; most known: VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory), Bordet-Wassermann reaction (first blood test for syphilis, nontreponemal category; RPR and VDRL replaced it). 











T. pallidum lacks many pathways including the tricarboxylic acid cycle, components of oxidative phosphorylation and most biosynthetic pathways, and relies on the host to perform necessary functions.

Persons are most infectious early in disease when a chancre, mucous patch, or condyloma latum is present and by 4 years after acquiring the disease.  

Clinical manifestations: traditionally divided into five stages: incubating, primary, secondary, latent (early latent and late latent), and late or tertiary syphilis (neurosyphilis, cardiovascular syphilis and gummatous syphilis). 

Primary syphilis: 3 to 90 days (a median of 3 weeks) after infection. Single, painless chancre or ulcer develops at the site of inoculation. In some persons, it does not develop at all; in others, it is so small that it may go completely unnoticed. In those with HIV, multiple ulcers may develop. 

Secondary syphilis: widespread dissemination to various parts of the body. It becomes evident in a mean of 6 weeks after inoculation. In 90% of cases, there is a rash which most commonly is widely disseminated, maculopapular and involves the palms and soles but other dermatological manifestations are also common. Over 50% of cases have fever, malaise, anorexia, weight loss, pharyngitis, laryngitis, and/or arthralgias. Other manifestations: lesions in the mouth and oral cavity, lymphadenopathy, condyloma latum, glomerulonephritis, nephritic syndrome, hepatitis, arthritis, osteitis, and periosteitis.  

Latent syphilis is the period of months to years post infection in which there are no outward clinical manifestations of disease despite viable organisms. Clinical relapses can occur during the first year of the latent stage (referred to as the early latent phase), as a result of waning specific cellular immunity.  

Tertiary/late syphilis: in up to 35% of untreated patients 10 to 25 years after the initial infection. Can be categorized into: neurosyphilis, cardiovascular syphilis and granulomatous syphilis. The latter 2: uncommon in the antibiotic (frequent antibiotics' exposure); neurosyphilis: most common manifestation of tertiary/late syphilis nowadays (generally poor penetration of antibiotics into the CNS). 


A VARIETY OF LABORATORY TESTS HAVE BEEN DEVELOPED TO OVERCOME THE INABILITY TO CULTURE T. PALLIDUM USING STANDARD LABORATORY METHODS: 


DIRECT DETECTION METHODS

- not widely available; false negative tests relatively common (30%). 

Dark Field Microscopy

- sensitive, direct, quick (in active lesions); specimens best obtained from serous transudate of moist lesions such as a primary chancre, condyloma latum or mucous patches (from dry skin or lymph nodes by non-bactericidal saline aspiration). 

- under dark field microscopy, T. pallidum will appear as corkscrew shape in spiraling motion with a 90° undulation about its midpoint (3 or more specimens required before deciding for non-syphilitic).

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

- can detect T. pallidum genetic material, most often the PoIA gene; most commonly used to detect congenital syphilis, but also effective for primary syphilis. 

Immunofluorescent and Immunoperoxidase Antibody Staining

- can be used to visualize nonviable spirochetes, from mucocutaneous lesions, lymph nodes, dry skin. 


• SEROLOGICAL TESTS

Nontreponemal Reaginic Antibody Tests

Syphilis reaginic antibodies are IgG and IgM antibodies directed against a lipoidal antigen resulting from the interaction of host tissues with T. pallidum or from T. pallidum itself. VDRL slide test: first nontreponemal test developed; except for its use in diagnosing neurosyphilis, it has now been largely replaced by the modifications such as the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) card test, automated reagin test (ART). 

Nontreponemal tests become positive shortly after initial infection, peak during the secondary or early latent stage, and then decline with time. In primary syphilis, an antibody response may not yet have been generated so nontreponemal tests may be negative. In secondary syphilis, virtually 100% of infected persons have positive serological tests for syphilis but in some patients the titers are so high that the test is reported as negative due to the prozone phenomenon. On the other hand, whenever there is a strong immunologic stimulus (e.g. acute bacterial or viral infection, vaccination, HIV infection), a "false" positive occurs. In addition, persons who use injection drugs, have autoimmune or connective tissue diseases (especially systemic lupus erythematosus), or hypergammaglobulinemic states may have "false" positive results. These persons often also have blood tests positive for other factors frequently associated with autoimmune disease such as antinuclear, antithyroid, or antimitochondrial antibodies; rheumatoid factor; and cryoglobulins. A negative specific treponemal test will confirm that the test is a false positive and that syphilis can be excluded.

Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody-Absorption (FTA-abs)

- uses T. pallidum harvested from rabbit testes as the antigen in a standard indirect immunofluorescent antibody test; confirms/refutes a positive nontreponemal test. At high suspicion, diagnoses syphilis even when a nontreponemal test is negative. 

T. pallidum Haemagglutination Assay (TPHA) and Microhemagglutination Assay for Antibodies to T. pallidum (MHATP)

- TPHA measures specific treponemal antibody;  performed easier than the FTA-abs and as specific, but not as sensitive, especially in early disease; 

- MHATP is similar to TPHA, except it uses a microtiter plate; "sorbent" is always used to increase its specificity.  

Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) 

- immunoassay detecting T. pallidum specific antibodies; may detect only IgG or IgM but most assays are polyvalent. As with all ELISAs, an enzyme is conjugated with anti-human antibodies and only those wells that contain T. pallidum specific antibodies conjugated to the enzyme will exhibit a color change.  The sensitivity and specificity of ELISAs are similar to TPHA and FTA-Abs. Compared with the RPR and MHATP sensitivities, ELISA is more sensitive in all stages of syphilis except in secondary syphilis when all tests show 100% sensitivity.

Immunochromatographic Membrane Test (ICT)

- rapid test detecting T. pallidum antibodies employing anti-human immunoglobulins gold conjugate and highly purified TP recombinant proteins bound to a membrane; advantage over ELISA: it is visually read and can be performed at the point of care. 

Immunochromatographic Strip (ICS)

- a "lateral flow" test in which antibodies in a specimen are detected by becoming bound to antigens, marked with dye, on a cellulose strip; like ICTs, it requires no special training to read, laboratory equipment to run, or refrigeration of reagents or samples. 

Line immunoassay (LIA)

- uses recombinant and synthetic polypeptide antigens derived from T. pallidum proteins to determine if a clinical specimen has treponemal antibodies; like ICTs and the ICS test, it is inexpensive, rapid, and requires no special laboratory equipment or highly trained personnel.


INDICATIONS FOR LUMBAR PUNCTURE:

- any patient with symptoms and/or signs of neurologic or ophthalmic disease should have an evaluation that includes CSF analysis, ophthalmologic examination and otologic evaluation; 

- patients whose symptoms and/or signs persist posttreatment for early syphilis or recur or who have four-fold increases in their NTA titers should be considered to be treatment failures or re-infected and all should have a lumbar puncture. Patients with latent syphilis who meet any of the following three criteria also should have lumbar punctures: patients whose symptoms and/or signs persist posttreatment for early syphilis or recur or who have four-fold increases in their NTA titers should be considered to be treatment failures or re-infected and all should have a lumbar puncture;

Changes consistent with syphilis in the CSF include the following:

- an elevated cell count usually of less than 200 cells predominantly lymphocytes

- elevated protein up to 200 mg/dL

- normal glucose in the majority of patients though it may be modestly decreased in about a third positive NTA test (TSAs are not used for the diagnosis of central nervous system syphilis)

Patients with abnormal spinal fluid results should have repeat studies performed at 6 month intervals until the cell count is normal. Elevated protein levels and the CSF NTA antibody titer may take longer to resolve and are not important as long as the CSF cell count returns to normal. 

If cell counts have not returned to normal by 2 years the patient should be re-treated. 

Keep in mind that HIV infection causes CSF pleocytosis and elevated protein levels independent of syphilis and this may be an explanation for nonresolution of CSF abnormalities in such persons.


TESTING ALGORITHMS FOR SYPHILIS IN ADULTS EXCEPT NEUROSYPHILIS

Diagnosing syphilis algorithm: nontreponemal test; if reactive, verify with FTA-abs, TPHA, MHATP, or ELISA. If both tests are reactive, then a person is considered to have present or past syphilis infection. Treatment decisions are based on past history and nontreponemal titers. 

As with the traditional method, when a person is reactive to both a specific treponemal such as a positive ELISA test and nontreponemal test such as a RPR, then a person is considered to have active disease requiring treatment. When a person is reactive to the treponemal test but nonreactive to the nontreponemal test such as a RPR test, persons with a history of previous treatment will require non further management. Those with no prior history of treatment should have a different treponemal test performed such as an FTA-abs. If the second test is also nonreactive, then the clinician needs to use his/her clinical judgement to decide whether or not a third treponemal test is indicated.

TESTING ALGORITHMS FOR CONGENITAL SYPHILIS


The diagnosis for congenital syphilis is best made by testing the mother at the time of birth since infant serum titers, even when the infant is infected, may be non-reactive, especially if the mother has low titers or the mother was infected late in pregnancy. If the mother has reactive syphilis serology, then the infant's serum should be evaluated with a RPR or VDRL. Infants should also have a physical exam and dark field microscopy or direct fluorescent staining of any suspicious lesions and radiological and ultrasound studies. The placenta or umbilical cord should also be examined using specific fluorescent anti-treponemal antibody staining. IgM-specific antibodies (ELISA, reverse enzyme-linked immunospot (Relispot), FTA-abs, or immunoblotting/Western blot) and PCR are also recommended to make the diagnosis. 

TESTING ALGORITHMS FOR NEUROSYPHILIS

A lumbar puncture with the CSF sent for VDRL, cytology, and protein is the most commonly used method for making the diagnosis. A reactive CSF-VDRL is considered diagnostic of syphilis while a negative test does not rule out disease, e.g., it is a specific but not very sensitive test. If the CSF-VDRL is negative, a finding of >5 mononuclear cells per cubic millimeter, a protein value of 46 mg/dL, or a glucose of 45 mg/dL, all suggest neurosyphilis.  

Methods with greater sensitivity and specificity than the CSF-VDRL are the intrathecal T. pallidum antibody (ITPA) and TPHA. A FTA-abs test is usually not performed on CSF because a positive test may represent passive transfer of antibody from serum to the CSF and not active CNS disease. However, it is highly sensitive and thus a negative test can be helpful in ruling out neurosyphilis, especially in HIV infected patients who often have white blood cells in the CSF.  


SUSCEPTIBILITY IN VITRO AND IN VIVO

Penicillin, the first antibiotic developed, was the first known effective antibiotic for T. pallidum and remains the treatment of choice today. T. pallidum can regenerate if the serum penicillin concentration falls to sub-inhibitory levels for 24-30 hours.

T. pallidum is also susceptible to virtually all other β-lactam antibiotics (amoxicillin, ceftriaxone, ceftizoxime, cefmetazole, cefetamet). Macrolide antibiotics are also able to inhibit T. pallidum but not as efficiently as the β-lactam antibiotics. 

Combination therapy for syphilis is no more efficacious than single drug therapy. The addition of amoxicillin and probenecid for 10 days to 2.4 million units of penicillin achieves similar result as penicillin alone. 


CLINICAL PRESENTATION OF SYPHILIS

- can mainly be divided into early syphilis and late syphilis.

EARLY SYPHILIS

- primary syphilis: the primary ulcer or chancre: on the genitals, perianal skin, within the rectum, oral cavity, and any other skin or mucous membrane surface exposed to an infectious lesion that was present on the source sexual partner. The average incubation period is 3 weeks but can vary from 10 to 90 days. Any genital ulcer should be considered to be syphilis until proven otherwise. The lesions of primary syphilis will resolve within 3 to 6 weeks without treatment. Of course, the individual remains infected and will become infectious again with the advent of secondary syphilis. 

- secondary syphilis: left untreated, the organism disseminates hematogenously from the site of the primary infection to all parts of the body. This occurs within a few weeks or months of the onset of the primary lesions. Cutaneous and/or mucous membrane lesions are the most common clinical manifestations of the phenomenon and occasionally the primary lesion persists.  

Initially erythematous macules which evolve into hyperpigmented papules. Skin lesions are usually present on both the palms and soles and any rash with this distribution should immediately bring secondary syphilis to mind. Mucosal lesions are generally superficial, ulcerated, and painless with gray borders. Similar lesions may be found on the foreskin, penile head, and intravaginally. Patchy alopecia can be a manifestation of scalp involvement in secondary syphilis. Low grade fever, malaise, headache, and generalized lymphadenopathy often accompany dissemination.  

Uncommon systemic manifestations of secondary syphilis include gastritis, mild hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. As with the primary chancre, the manifestations of secondary syphilis also will resolve spontaneously over time but over a period of a few years there may be relapses of secondary disease.

- EARLY LATENT SYPHILIS: asymptomatic person with a normal physical examination who is diagnosed serologically and has a history of syphilis exposure within the preceding 1 year.

LATE SYPHILIS

- neurosyphilis 

Persons who have syphilis and symptoms or signs suggesting neurologic or ophthalmic disease should have an evaluation that includes CSF analysis, ocular slit-lamp ophthalmologic examination, and otologic examination. 

Acute syphilitic meningitis: The incubation period for this relatively rare syndrome is usually less than 1 year; treatment is the same as for late disease. Symptoms and signs of meningitis are the first clinical manifestations in only a quarter of patients.

In some of these patients the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination is normal, particularly those with isolated 8th nerve disease, though the majority have modestly elevated cell counts, increased protein, and positive CSF serologic tests or a combination of these results. 

Cerebrovascular syphilis: incubation period is 5 to 12 years after the initial infection. The most common manifestations are hemiparesis or hemiplegia. It affects the middle and anterior cerebral arteries most frequently. Other presenting problems include aphasia and seizures. 

Neurosyphilis should be strongly suspected in all younger patients presenting with cerebrovascular accidents. 

Ocular syphilis: have been reported increasingly; most suspected cases in males, half in HIV-positive persons. A significant proportion of cases have been reported in patients with early syphilis. Severe outcomes, including blindness, have been reported in both HIV-positive and negative patients.  

All patients diagnosed with syphilis that exhibit ocular manifestations should immediately be treated for neurosyphilis and be referred for formal ophthalmologic examination. Optic atrophy in the absence of signs of inflammation may be found in association with other manifestations of neurosyphilis or may be an isolated finding of late syphilis. 

Nonneurologic manifestations of late syphilis (tertiary syphilis): various cardiovascular diseases. Late benign syphilis lesions or gummas are rarely seen today. 


What laboratory tests should you order and what should expect to find?

- A dark field examination of fluid expressed directly from a lesion in the time-honored diagnostic test for patients with the skin lesions of primary and secondary syphilis; the specimen is obtained by pressing a glass slide directly onto a lesion and then placing it immediately under a darkfield microscope for reading.  

Serologic tests are the cornerstone of syphilis diagnosis. There are two general types of tests: 

The reagin or nontreponemal assays (NTAs) is based on the fact that human antibodies induced by T. pallidum infection cross react with mammalian cardiolipin. In essence this is an "autoantibody" and therefore it is not too surprising that it lacks specificity. Conditions associated with false positive NTAs include old age, pregnancy, malignancy, and collagen vascular disease among others. The advantage of NTAs is the rise and fall of antibody titers reflect the course of disease including decreasing titers in patients who have been successfully treated. A four-fold reduction in titer over a period of 3 to 12 months is accepted as evidence of treatment success. An additional advantage is that one of the NTAs, the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) card agglutination test, is relatively quick and simple to perform.

The treponeme specific assays (TSAs) traditionally have been used to confirm that a positive NTA is a true positive test. Following this algorithm when a syphilis serology is ordered on a patient the laboratory first performs a NTA and if positive then automatically performs a TSA test to differentiate between a true and a false positive NTA result. The TSAs generally are more complex tests and take more time so in the case of a negative NTA they are not performed. 

Interpretation of syphilis serologic assays following the traditional testing algorithm: neither a negative NTA nor negative TSA rules out primary syphilis. It follows then that in a patient suspected of having a primary chancre, if the RPR is negative the patient should be treated for primary syphilis empirically. Such patients can be invited to return to the clinic in several weeks to determine if seroconversion has occurred. In contrast to primary syphilis, a negative NTA almost does rule out secondary syphilis. Over a period of years following an untreated primary infection, the NTA test will become negative in a proportion of patients with late syphilis while the TSA remains positive in almost all cases. Therefore, if an NTA is negative in a patient suspected clinically of having late syphilis the care provider should order a TSA. Remember that the laboratory only performs this test automatically if the NTA is positive.


List of available serologic tests for syphilis (top below) and expected results of serologic testing in patients with untreated syphilis (bottom below):

  



TESTING GUIDELINES - SUMMARY:

TREPONEMA PALLIDUM (SYPHILIS) SCREENING CASCADE:








HIV - HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS - detection from blood, oral fluid, urine

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attacks and destroys immune system cells. If too many are lost, the body have trouble fighting off infections and other diseases. HIV is a lentivirus (a subgroup of retrovirus) that causes HIV infection and over time the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS); 9-11 years average survival time after HIV infection, without treatment. According to statistics, around 29% of HIV-infected people are unaware of their status. Approximately 25% of HIV-positive people learn that they are infected at the time of an AIDS diagnosis.     

HIV infects helper T cells (specifically CD4+ T cells), macrophages, and dendritic cells. HIV infection leads to low levels of CD4+ T cells through: pyroptosis of abortively infected T cells, apoptosis of uninfected bystander cells, direct viral killing of infected cells, and killing of infected CD4+ T cells by CD8 cytotoxic lymphocytes that recognize infected cells. When CD4+ T cell number declines below a critical level, cell-mediated immunity is lost, and the body becomes progressively more susceptible to opportunistic infections. 

Most people with HIV don't have AIDS. People with AIDS have an extremely low number of immune cells, causing progressive failure of the immune system; they are at risk for life-threatening illnesses, such as dangerous opportunistic infections, severe pneumonia, cancers (Kaposi sarcoma). While there is no cure for HIV, the disease can be effectively controlled with medicines called antiretroviral therapy (ART). ART can significantly reduce the amount of HIV in the blood. People with HIV who take ART before the disease gets too advanced can live long, healthy lives. If one is living with HIV, it's important that the health care provider is seen regularly.  

HIV is mainly spread through sexual contact and blood; there is high HIV infection risk if it is about:

- a man that has had sex with another man

- have had sex with an HIV-infected partner

- have had multiple sex partners

- have injected drugs, such as heroin, or shared needles with someone else.

HIV can spread from mother to child during birth and through breast milk (not through pregnancy ever since the female and baby's blood do not mix). If pregnant, the doctor may order an HIV test. The mother may be given medicines for pregnancy and delivery that greatly reduce risk of spreading the disease to the baby through the delivery process. 

A negative test result may mean that one doesn't have HIV, but it may also mean that it is too soon to tell if there is infection. It may take a few weeks for HIV antibodies and antigens to show up in the body. If the result is negative, the health care provider should order additional HIV tests at a later date. There is a window (2-12 months after exposure) in which the immune system begins making antibodies against HIV. It's possible to get a negative test result within the first three months of being exposed to HIV. To confirm a negative status, one must be tested again at the end of the 3-months period. No test can detect HIV immediately after exposure. If there was exposure, getting a test the following day won't rule out infection. During the window period, a person may have HIV but still test negative. If the first test result is positive, a follow-up test to confirm the diagnosis is performed. If both tests are positive, it means one has HIV. 

HIV tests are typically performed on blood/oral fluids and rarely on urine. There are 3 main types of HIV tests available: 

nucleic acid tests (NAT)/HIV viral load

- antigen/antibody tests

- antibody tests


NAT/viral load test: the amount of virus in the venous blood; detects HIV sooner than the other tests, but is expensive (not routinely used as screening test, unless: high risk/possible exposure, early symptoms of HIV infection). It is mostly used for monitoring HIV infections. An HIV RNA PCR or NAT (nucleic acid amplification) may detect very early (acute) HIV infection, because HIV RNA appears in the blood within the first few days of infection. If the antibody test is negative but the NAT is positive, it may indicate that the patient is very newly infected. NAT testing is also used to confirm a positive result.

Antigen/antibody tests: HIV antigens (antigens: the foreign substances, part of the virus, triggering the immune system) and antibodies (antibodies: produced by the host's immune system in response to infection) in the blood. These tests usually find HIV within 2-6 weeks of infection and are one of the most common types of HIV tests.  At HIV exposure, antigens (such as p24) show up in the blood before HIV antibodies are made. It is mainly performed on venous blood, but there are also finger prick antigen/antibody tests.

HIV antibody tests only search for the antibodies to HIV in blood/oral fluid. An HIV antibody test can determine if you have HIV from 3-12 weeks after infection, because it can take a few weeks or longer for the immune system to make antibodies against HIV. In general, antibody tests using venous blood can detect HIV sooner than those on finger prick blood/oral fluid. Most rapid tests (as well as the most tests approved as self-tests and the typical screening tests) are antibody tests. 


The most commonly used testing for HIV are the rapid immunochromatographic tests on cassettes (mainly as antibody detection). The 2 pictures below show the principle of immunochromatography testing on cassettes ready and rapid to use.

Before the rapid immunochromatography HIV serum tests turned popular, the typical procedure for HIV testing was as follows: ELISA serological testing: specific serum antibodies; false positives-negatives, therefore: ELISA confirmed with Western-Blot: identification of viral antigenic serum proteins and antibodies against them.

Rapid immunochromatography test procedure:

Example of a rapid immunochromatography test: in about 10-20 minutes the device indicates whether HIV-1 or HIV-2 antibodies are present. If only one line appears on the strip (the control line that confirms the accuracy of the test functionality), it means that the person is not infected with HIV. If 2 lines appear, the person is likely infected. If the result is positive, a confirmation test must be performed. Again, it is important to mention that as with all antibody tests for HIV, it could take from 2 to 4 weeks for a newly infected person to develop antibodies to the HIV virus and thus test positive for HIV. Therefore, if there is a negative result but a possibility of a recent exposure to HIV, the test must be repeated. 

To perform a rapid oral fluid/finger-prick blood test, the tester collects either oral secretions or a drop of blood from a finger-stick sample. For oral secretions, the device involves swabs once around both the upper and lower gums. The tester then inserts the device into a vial containing the developing solution (see image on the left for oral fluid tests).



Test kits usually have a certain shelf-life. False positives are possible with some rapid tests and have sometimes been associated with other conditions. Invalid tests may be repeated or tested using EIA and/or Western blot. And most importantly, reactive results should be considered preliminary and require confirmatory Western blot testing/other testing. 

A negative result using a rapid HIV test should not be considered definitive (window period important). Some tests are capable of detecting HIV antibodies in as little as 14 days after infection. But for individuals who may have had a recent exposure, there is a need to recommend retesting in 3 months. If acute HIV infection is suspected, PCR or bDNA testing may also be warranted. 

The results of the Western blot/other testing as confirmatory tests, once returned from the laboratory, are definitive in the event of a preliminary positive rapid HIV assay. In the event of a negative preliminary result, it is recommended to repeat with a confirmatory test to rule out the possibility of sample mix-up or evolving seroconversion. It also might be worthwhile to consider other diagnostic testing (which may give false positives with some rapid tests), such as hepatitis A, B, or C screening, rheumatoid factor, EBV infection, and also HIV PCR if there was the possibility of a recent exposure to HIV. 

If preliminary testing showed positive but the confirmatory proved negative, retesting should be performed at the end of the 3-months period. The most likely scenario, after a preliminary positive rapid assay, is that the confirmatory testing will also be positive. In this case, the HIV positive diagnosis is definitive.




TROPONIN LEVEL TESTING - detection from blood

A troponin test measures the level of troponin in the blood, a type of protein found in the muscles of the heart. Troponin isn't normally found in the blood, but when heart muscles are damaged, troponin is send into the bloodstream. As heart damage increases, greater amounts of troponin are released into the blood.

High levels of troponin in the blood may indicate having/having had a heart attack (recently). Cardiac troponin (cTn) is composed of three different subunits: 

- Troponin C (cTnC): binds to calcium ions to produce a conformational change in TnI

- Troponin T(cTnT): binds to tropomyosin, interlocking them to form a troponin-tropomyosin complex

- Troponin I (cTnI): binds to actin in thin myofilaments to hold the actin-tropomyosin complex in place

cTn is present in myocardial cells in the form of the cTnI-C-T complex and free cTnI, which is released into blood circulation when an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs. Then, cTnI-C-T can be further decomposed into the cTnI-C complex and free cTnT, where the cTnI-C complex is the main form in the blood. 

Most quick immunochemical Troponin Tests are lateral flow chromatographic immunoassays used for the qualitative detection of cardiac Troponin I (cTnI) in human serum, plasma or whole blood at a level ≥1ng/mL. This test is very useful in the diagnosis of AMI. 

Normally, the level of cTnI in the blood is very low. cTnI is released into the blood stream in forms of free cTnI and cTnI-C-T complex at 4-6 hours after myocardial cell damage. The elevated level of cTnI could be as high as 50ng/mL during 60-80 hours after AMI and remains detectable for up to 10-14 days post AMI. Therefore, cTnI is a specific and sensitive marker for AMI. 

Work procedure for the troponin tests differ from one test device manufacturer to another. Some tests use the: 2 drops of serum/plasma plus 1 drop of buffer or 5 microliters serum plus 2 drops of buffer (it may also be the case that the test cassette already contains what it needs so no buffer is added, only the sample from the patient). Below is an example of a work procedure for the troponin test:



HELICOBACTER PYLORI ANTIBODY TEST - detection from blood

HELICOBACTER PYLORI ANTIBODY DETECTION - from the serum mainly


Helicobacter Pylori is a gram-negative bacterium that causes inflammation of the stomach lining. The results of affection by this bacterium may lead to the chronic gastritis and is strongly linked to the development of duodenal and gastric ulcers and stomach cancer. 

Helicobacter pylori antibody detection from serum/plasma/whole blood is a rapid qualitative test usually based on the immunochromatographic principle. In this test procedure, anti-human IgG is immobilized in the test line region; after specimen addition, it reacts with the H. pylori antigen coated particles in the test. This mixture migrates chromatographically along the length of the test and interacts with immobilized anti-human IgG. 


If the specimen contains H. pylori antibodies, a coloured line will appear in the test line region indicating a positive result. If the specimen does not contain H. pylori antibodies, a coloured line will not appear in this region indicating a negative result. To serve as a procedural control, a coloured line will always appear in the control line region, indicating that proper volume of specimen has been added and membrane wicking has occurred. 

The serological approaches (such as the quick immunochemical test described above) detect the reaction of patient's immunologic system against the disease however these approaches prevent the specialist to distinguish an active infection or the passed infection. In addition, the antibody titre does not change in the course of treatment.



HELICOBACTER PYLORI ANTIGEN TEST - detection from stool

    Helicobacter pylori antigen quick tests from the stool (faecal material) - see image on the left - are usually based on the immunochromatographic principle. Helicobacter Pylori Antigen Cassette Test is used as a diagnostic tool to qualitatively detect  helicobacter pylori antigens in stool. The antigen detection of helicobacter pylori infection in stool can determine all isotypes of existing organism in the stool sample. 



    
    There are several other improved techniques of helicobacter pylori bacterium detection, besides the quick immunochemical tests; urea breath test is one of these techniques. Giemsa staining procedures specific to Helicobacter pylori should also be mentioned; these are performed through the antral endoscopic biopsy, biopsy culture methods and rapid urea tests. The culturing method requires longer time until obtaining the results. 


FECAL OCCULT BLOOD (FOB) TEST - detection from stool

A faecal occult blood test looks at a sample of the stool (faeces) to check for blood. Occult blood means that you cannot see it with the naked eye. 

When there is blood in the stool, it means there is likely some bleeding in the digestive tract. It may be caused by: polyps, haemorrhoids, diverticulosis, ulcers, colitis. Blood in the stool may also be a sign of colorectal cancer, a type of cancer that starts in the colon or rectum. 

The FOB Rapid Test Kits most commonly involve the immunochromatographic method of detection; is intended for the qualitative detection of faecal occult blood. 

The immunochemical rapid test devices are designed to specifically detect low levels of faecal occult blood (it may be as low as 50ng/mL; hHB ≥ 50 ng/mL). 




GIARDIA LAMBLIA TEST - detection from stool

Giardia Lamblia Antigen


Parasitosis is still a serious global health problem nowadays. 

Giardia Lamblia is the most common protozoan responsible for a wide range of conditions, ranging from severe diarrhea, especially in immunocompromised patients. 

Attachment of the parasite to the duodenal mucosa leads to malabsorption. Intestinal villi atrophy and disappear, leading to significant changes in digestive function, with weight loss and dehydration. In most cases the infection is asymptomatic. 


The Giardia Lamblia quick test on the cassette is a rapid test for immunochromatographic identification and qualitative detection of Giardia Lamblia antigens - 65 kDa coproantigen - a glycoprotein present in Giardia Lamblia cysts and trophozoites. 

Below is presented the work procedure available for most of the quick tests using the immunochromatographic qualitative method of detection.  














IONOMETRY

ION: atom/group of atoms with electric charge (positive charge: cations; negative charge: anions). Many normal substances exist in the body as ions (sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, bicarbonate, substances known as electrolytes). Chemically, electrolytes are substances that become ions in solution and acquire the capacity to conduct electricity (ions enable the flow of electrical signals through the body). 

The balance of the electrolytes in our bodies is essential for normal function of our cells and organs. If electrolyte levels are too low or too high, cell and organ functions will decline, which could lead to life-threatening conditions. Virtually every metabolic process depends on the presence of electrolytes, which create an "electric potential" needed to do "cellular work".  


The body has complex systems for monitoring and maintaining electrolyte concentrations in a normal narrow range. Physiological functions: 

- maintenance of osmotic pressure and water distribution (water homeostasis)

- conduction of neuromuscular impulses

- acid-base maintenance

- enzyme activation

- electron transfer

- rebuild damaged tissue


Common electrolytes that are measured by doctors with blood testing include sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, calcium, magnesium, phosphate. These have essential functions in the body. For example, a muscle needs calcium, sodium and potassium to contract. When these substances become imbalanced, it can lead to either muscle weakness or excessive contraction. The heart, muscle and nerve cells use electrolytes to carry electrical impulses to other cells.

Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and magnesium (the main electrolytes; nutritional elements) are minerals, and when minerals dissolve in water, they separate into positive and negative ions. For example, when sodium chloride (NaCl) is dissolved in water, it separates into positive sodium ions and negative chloride ions.

Anions: negatively charged ions; migrate towards the anode (positive electrode).

Cations: positively charged ions; migrate towards the cathode (negative electrode).


Major electrolytes (Na+, K+, Cl-, HCO3-) exist as free ions in solution, capable of carrying an electrical charge. Often classified as: major intracellular anion/cation, major extracellular anion/cation. 

Much of the metabolic energy produced by the body is used to establish high intracellular concentrations of potassium (K+) and low concentrations of sodium (Na+), the reverse of the relative concentrations of these ions in the extracellular fluids. The extrusion of sodium requires its movement against a gradient of concentration (higher outside than inside) and electrical potential (inside about 70 mV more negative than outside); work is therefore needed to overcome this electrochemical gradient. 



Functions of the main electrolytes (ions):


- sodium ions: regulate osmotic pressure and the body's water content, transmit nerve signals, contract muscles etc;

- potassium ions: transmit nerve signals and contract muscles including the heart etc;  

- magnesium ions: contract muscles, form bones and teeth, activate enzymes etc;

- calcium ions: transmit nerve signals, contract muscles, form bones and teeth, clot blood;

- chloride ions: regulate osmotic pressure and the body's water content, enable the secretion of stomach acid etc. 

Values differ slightly between serum fluid and plasma fluid; difference is most significant with potassium (serum K+ > plasma K+).

An ion-selective analyser comprises of ion-selective electrode (ISE) and is an analytical technique used to determine the activity of ions in aqueous solution by measuring the electrical potential. It has application in the field of pharmaceuticals and biotechnology. There are four types of ISE: glass electrode, crystalline electrodes, ion-exchange electrodes and enzyme electrodes.


Sodium and potassium and the main and most basic ions analysed. Therefore, more emphasis will be placed on them.  



SODIUM:


Sodium is the major positive ion (cation) in fluid outside of cells. Many processes in the body, especially in the brain, nervous system and muscles require electrical signals for communication. The movement of sodium is critical in the generation of these electrical signals. 


Regulation of osmolality: 

- aldosterone: stimulates sodium (and H2O) retention by kidney (at expense of K+).


Sodium (Na+):

- major cation in ECF (plasma);

- responsible for almost 1/2 the osmotic strength of plasma.


Sodium (Na+) Regulation:

- kidneys are the primary regulators of body sodium and water;

- sodium is freely filtered by glomerulus, 70-80% actively reabsorbed by PCT;

- in times of deficit all sodium is reabsorbed by kidney. 



POTASSIUM:


Potassium is the major positive ion (cation) found inside of cells. Among the many functions of potassium in the body are regulation of the heartbeat and the function of the muscles. 

Potassium levels often change with sodium levels. When sodium levels go up, potassium levels go down, and when sodium levels go down, potassium levels go up. Potassium levels are also affected by a hormone called aldosterone, which is made by the adrenal glands.   

Potassium levels can be affected by how the kidneys are working, the blood pH, the amount of potassium you eat, the hormone levels in your body, severe vomiting, and taking certain medicines, such as diuretics and potassium supplements. Certain cancer treatments that destroy cancer cells can also make potassium levels high. 


Potassium (K+):

- major intracellular cation;

- neuromuscular excitability, heart contractions, maintain ICF volume, maintain H+ concentrations;

- 23x higher in RBC compared to plasma; higher in tissue cells.


Potassium (K+) Regulation:

- Na+-K+-ATP-ase pump continually transports K+ into cells against concentration gradient;

- high intracellular "stores" aid to maintain near-normal extracellular K+ levels in times of deficit;

 - kidney response to conserve K+ is not as immediate and thorough as its response to conserve Na+;

- aldosterone: when sodium is retained, K+ (or H+) is excreted into urine.



CHLORIDE:


Chloride is the major anion (negatively charged ion) found in the fluid outside of cells and in the blood. Chloride plays a role in helping the body maintain a normal balance of fluids. 


Chloride (Cl-):

- major anion in ECF;

- most often Cl- ions shift with Na+ (passive association) and HCO3- to maintain electrical neutrality, osmolality and blood volume. 


Chloride (Cl-) Regulation:

- filtered by glomerulus, passively reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and actively reabsorbed by the ascending Loop of Henle;

- chloride shift: maintains anion-cation balance during buffering process in response to cellular metabolism.



BICARBONATE:


The bicarbonate ion acts as a buffer to maintain the normal levels of acidity (pH) in blood and other fluids in the body. Bicarbonate levels are measured to monitor the acidity of the blood and body fluids.  


Bicarbonate (HCO3-):

- 2nd most abundant anion in ECF;

- maintenance of acid-base balance as the major buffer ion in the carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffer system; major component (>95%) of total CO2 (tCO2).


Bicarbonate (HCO3-) Regulation:

- filtered by the glomerulus and reabsorbed in the proximal and distal tubules;

- kidney has the capacity to reabsorb all or none of the filtered HCO3- as needed to maintain acid/base balance in body.

SODIUM

Sodium: serum and urinary


Serum sodium

All the movements of sodium produce the movement of a variable amount of water. The volume of fluid in the extracellular compartment is directly dependent on the total amount of sodium in the body. The plasma sodium concentration is identical to that of the interstitial fluid. 

In its movements, to achieve an electrical balance, Na+ is followed by anions and primarily by Cl- and HCO3-. Being an alkaline metal and in its movement entraining the bicarbonate anion, Na+ intervenes in maintaining the acid-base balance. Also, Na+ intervenes in the neuromuscular excitability and in the dynamics of the polarization and depolarization phenomena of the cell membrane, opposing the effects of potassium. 

The mechanisms by which the body maintains constant sodium levels in the plasma and extracellular sector are represented by: renal blood flow carbonic anhydrase activity, renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, ADH, vasopressin, other steroid hormones whose plasma concentration is controlled by he anterior pituitary. 

Biological reference range: premature babies: 132-140 mEq/L; newborns: 133-142 mEq/L; children (1-16): 136-145 mEq/L; adults: 136-145 mEq/L. 


Urinary sodium

The main way to eliminate sodium is through the kidneys. Sodium excretion by the kidneys is influenced by changes in glomerular filtration rate, serum sodium concentration, adrenal cortex activity, the amount of non-resorbable solvates in the filtrate and the volume of extracellular fluid. 

Biological reference range: children: 41-115 mEq/24h; adults: 40-220 mEq/24h.

POTASSIUM

Potassium: serum and urinary.


Serum potassium

Potassium is the main electrolyte (cation) and constituent of the intracellular fluid buffer system. 90% of the potassium is concentrated inside the cell, only small amounts being present in the bones and blood. The damaged cells release potassium into the blood. The entire amount of potassium contained in ingested food is absorbed in the small intestine. The vast majority of potassium (90%) is in ionic form, the rest being protein-related. 

Potassium is indispensable for the normal development of membrane electrical phenomena. It also plays an important role in nerve conduction, muscle contraction, acid-base balance, osmotic pressure, protein anabolism and glycogen formation. Anabolic processes are accompanied by the fixation of potassium in the cell, and catabolic processes by its release. 

Along with calcium and magnesium, potassium controls heart contraction and flow. Potassium and sodium ions are important in the renal regulation of acid-base balance, hydrogen ions being replaced by sodium and potassium ions in the renal tube. Potassium bicarbonate is the major intracellular inorganic buffer. 

Biological reference range:

Premature - umbilical cord blood: 5.0-10.2 mEq/L; premature 48h - venous blood: 3.0-6.0 mEq/L; newborns - umbilical cord blood: 5.6-12.0 mEq/L; newborns - venous blood: 3.7-5.9 mEq/L; children - venous blood: 3.4-4.7 mEq/L; adults: 3.5-5.1 mEq/L. 


Urinary potassium

The greatest amount of potassium is eliminated from the body through the kidneys. Normally 80-90% of potassium is excreted in the urine and the rest in sweat and stool. At the level of the nephron, potassium is subjected to the three fundamental mechanisms: glomerular filtration, complete reabsorption in the proximal tubules and secretion in the distal tubules. 

Biological reference range:

Girls (6-9y): 17-54 mEq/24h; boys (6-9y): 8-37 mEq/24h; girls (10-14y): 22-57 mEq/24h; boys (10-14y): 18-58 mEq/24h; adults: 25-125 mEq/24h.

PHOSPHOROUS

Phosphorous: serum and urinary.


Serum phosphorous

Phosphorous is, after calcium, the most abundant mineral element in the body, being in any tissue. Phosphate is the major intracellular anion. In the cell, phosphorous is mainly involved as organic phosphorous in carbohydrate and lipid metabolism or is bound to proteins and only a small part is present as a phosphate ion. The kidneys are the main regulators of phosphorous homeostasis; approximately 80% of the glomerular filtered amount is reabsorbed in the proximal tubules and 10% in the distal tubules. 

Biological reference range:

Newborns: 4.5-9.0 mg/dL; children: 4.5-5.5 mg/dL; adults: 2.7-4.5 mg/dL. 


Urinary phosphorous

It is recommended to determine urinary phosphorous for the evaluation of phospho-calcium balance and nephrolithiasis. 

Biological reference range: 400-1300 mg/24h; first morning urine: 40-140 mg/dL. 


MAGNESIUM

Magnesium: serum and urinary.


Serum magnesium

Magnesium is an element that, although found in small proportions in the body (0.05% of total body weight), is of great structural and functional importance. About 1% is in plasma, 25% is protein bound, the rest remains in ionized Mg2+ form. In erythrocytes the amount of magnesium is appreciable, about 5.2 mEq/L. Together with Na+, K+ and Ca2+ ions, magnesium regulates neuromuscular excitability and the coagulation mechanisms. The actions of calcium and magnesium are closely linked, the deficiency of one of these elements significantly influencing the metabolism of the other. 

Biological reference range:

Newborns (2 - 4 days old): 1.5-2.2 mg/dL; children (5 months - 6 years old): 1.7-2.3 mg/dL; children (6 - 12 years old): 1.7-2.1 mg/dL; adults: 1.6-2.6 mg/dL. 


Urinary magnesium

Normally 95% of the amount of magnesium that is filtered at the glomerular level is reabsorbed tubularly, especially in the ascending portion of the Henle loop. Magnesium excretion controls the serum level of this element and is dependent on diet. Magnesium, along with calcium, is subject to the effects of parathyroid hormone.  

CALCIUM

Calcium: serum - total and ionic, urinary.


Total serum calcium

Calcium is one of the most important minerals in the body. It is essential for the proper functioning of muscles, nerves, heart, and has an important role in coagulation and bone mineralization. Calcium is the major mineral component of bones. 99% of the body's calcium is in the bones and teeth, which is a huge reservoir for maintaining serum calcium levels, and the rest is distributed in biological fluids and soft tissues. Calcium homeostasis is maintained by parathyroid hormone (PTH). 

About half of the total amount of plasma calcium (45%) is bound to albumin (and only a small portion bound to globulins) in a non-ionized and non-diffusible form, making it a physiological inactive form. A small amount of calcium (5%) is diffusible but not ionized, being represented by citrate, phosphate and calcium bicarbonate. The rest of the plasma calcium is found in ionic or free form and constitutes the physiologically active fraction in the processes of haemostasis and regulation of neuromuscular excitability; its plasma concentration is directly related to PTH and 1,25(OH)2D. 

Calcium in the blood is tested to diagnose and monitor certain diseases related to bones, heart, kidneys and teeth. Its levels do not directly show how much calcium is in the blood, but how much calcium circulates in the blood. Calcium testing can be used if the patient has: kidney stones, bone diseases, neurological disorders.

Abnormal serum calcium levels may indicate parathyroid disfunction, bone disease, carcinoma, malnutrition and malabsorption syndrome, vitamin D deficiency, and kidney disease. Calcium ions play an important role in the transmission of nerve impulses, muscle contraction, heart function and coagulation processes. 

Biological reference range:

0 - 10 days old: 7.6-10.4 mg/dL; 10 days - 3 years old: 6.7-9.8 mg/dL; 3 - 9 years old: 8.4-10.2 mg/dL; 4 - 11 years old: 8.9-10.1 mg/dL; 11 - 13 years old: 8.8 - 10.6 mg/dL; 13 - 15 years old: 9.2-10.7 mg/dL; 15 - 18 years old: 8.4-10.7 mg/dL; adults: 8.8-10.4 mg/dL. 


Serum ionic calcium

Determination of ionic calcium provides guidance on the effect of total protein and albumin on serum calcium levels. A patient may have a high level of total calcium with a normal level of ionic calcium due to an increase in total protein and/or albumin, as is the case with dehydration or multiple myeloma. 

Ionic calcium testing is performed on patients who have a disturbed balance between bound and free calcium, and if they have transfusions, have had major surgery, or have abnormal blood protein levels, such as albumin. High fluctuations in ionic calcium can slow the heart or increase its heart rate, as well as cause muscle spasms, confusion or coma. In the case of very sick patients, it is extremely important to know the level of ionized calcium in order to intervene and prevent major complications. 

Biological reference range:

Newborns: 4.40-5.48 mg/dL; 1-18 years old: 4.80-5.52 mg/dL; adults: 4.65-5.28 mg/dL. 


Urinary calcium

Testing for calcium in the urine shows if the kidneys are excreting the right amount of calcium, and testing for vitamin, phosphorous, and/or magnesium determines what other deficiencies or excesses there are. 

Most of the calcium is excreted in the faeces and a small amount of calcium is excreted in the urine, depending on the calcium intake in the diet. Determination of urinary calcium is important in the diagnosis of hypercalcemia responsible for kidney stones. 

Biological reference range:

Normal diet: 100-300 mg/24h; low calcium diet: 50-150 mg/24h. 


CLINICAL BLOOD HAEMATOLOGY - COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT/CBC

 COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT (CBC) or FULL BLOOD COUNT (FBC), also known as HEMOGRAM/HAEMOLEUCOGRAM: red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets (PLTs), concentration of haemoglobin and haematocrit (the volume percentage of red blood cells). HEMOGRAM/HEMOLEUCOGRAM/CBC: a basic screening test, often the first step in assessing health and diagnosing various haematological and non-haematological conditions. 

Blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets. 

The CBC consists of measuring the following parameters:

- number of leukocytes;

- differential white blood count/leukocyte formula; 

- number of erythrocytes;

- haemoglobin;

- haemoglobin concentration: mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC); these 2 may also be referred to as erythrocytes indices;

- haematocrit;

- erythrocytes indices: mean corpuscular volume (MCV), mean erythrocyte haemoglobin (MCH), and red cell distribution width (RDW);

- platelet count and platelet indices: average platelet volume (VTM) and platelet distribution width (PDW);

- number of reticulocytes. 



WHITE BLOOD CELLS/LEUKOCYTES

White blood cells (WBC)/leukocytes/leucocytes are the cells of the immune system involved in protecting the body against foreign invaders and infectious diseases. There are 5 categories: basophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, monocytes and neutrophils, each of them fulfilling a specific function. All white blood cells are produced and derived from multipotent cells in the bone marrow known as hematopoietic stem cells.  

White blood cell count: number of white blood cells in the blood. Differential white blood cell: the percentage of each type of white blood cells present in the blood. 

Granulocytes: a type of white blood cells that have small granules, containing proteins. The specific types of granulocytes: neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils. Granulocytes, specifically neutrophils, help the body fight bacterial infections. 

Mast cell: mastocyte/labrocyte; a resident cell of connective tissue that contains granules rich in histamine and heparin. Mast cell: a type of granulocyte derived from the myeloid stem cell; a part of the immune and neuroimmune systems. 

BASOPHILS

Basophils and mast cells are important factors in allergic inflammation and other immune and inflammatory phenomena. These express on their surface an isoform of the receptor with high IgE affinity (when bound to the sensitising allergen or anti-IgE antibodies, both basophils and mast cell are activated, inducing mediators synthesis and secretion). Hence, basophils and mast cells are important factors in allergic inflammation and other immune and inflammatory phenomena.

 Basophils are the largest granulocytes, much larger than the eosinophils or the neutrophils. Basophils are structurally similar to the mast cells, but generally speaking, basophils have fewer granules than the mast cells and have a more homogeneous morphology than the mast cells. 

Basophils occur in most inflammatory reactions, especially those involving allergies. Heparin, contained in basophils, is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting too quickly. 


EOSINOPHILS

The nucleus is usually bilobed, but 3 or more lobes are often seen. They are in small number in healthy individuals, but become predominant in the blood and tissues in association with various allergic diseases (asthma), parasites or malignancies. Eosinophils contain at least 5 different types of intracytoplasmic granulations. Allergen/parasite-induced eosinophilia: dependent on the T-cells; mediated by cytokines released by the sensitized lymphocytes. 

The "eosinophils" name comes from the fact that these cells have an affinity for acid dyes (eosin), which gives them a specific red-brick coloration. They contain small cytoplasmic granules, which contain many active substances, such as histamine, ribonuclease and eosinophil peroxidase. 


NEUTROPHILS

- play a major role in the body's primary anti-infective defence by phagocytizing and digesting microorganisms. Their improper activation may lead to damage to the body's normal tissues by releasing enzymes and pyogenic agents. 

Upon infection, chemotactic agents are produced, which cause migration of neutrophils to the site of infection. The defensive functions of neutrophils are activated, with phagocytosis of the agent, followed by the release of granules into the phagocytosis vesicle and destruction of the infectious agent. 

Immature forms of neutrophils: bands cells; non-segmented polymorphonuclear neutrophils.

Mature forms of neutrophils: segmented neutrophils; polymorphonuclear neutrophils.


 

LYMPHOCYTES

Although some morphological characteristics (size, granularity, nucleolar-cytoplasmic ratio) differentiate lymphocyte populations from each other, they do not provide indications of their type and function. 

Lymphocytes:

- 65-80%: T cells (maturing in the thymus, where they migrate from the medullary level);

- 8-15%: B cells (maturing in the bone marrow);

- 10%: natural killer cells (some of them are identical with the large granular lymphocytes).

Plasma cells are completely differentiated B cells and are not normally present in the blood. Intermediate cells (lymphoplasmocytes): common in viral infections or in immunological diseases with hypergammaglobulinemia. 

B cells control the humoral immune response mediated by antibodies specific to the offensive antigen. Memory B cells: long lifespan; do not produce antibodies until antigenic restimulation, when they respond to much lower doses of antigen, proliferate clonally and produce 7-10 times more antibodies than unexposed B cells. 

T cells: involved in the cell-mediated immune response; include CD4+ helper T cells, CD8+ suppressor T cells and cytotoxic T cells. T-cells circulate until they encounter specific antigens; a critical part in immunity against foreign substances. 

NK cells are effector lymphocytes of the innate immune system that control several types of tumors and microbial infections.  


 MONOCYTES

- the largest cells in the blood; are part of the mononuclear/reticuloendothelial phagocytic system (composed of: monocytes, macrophages and their medullary precursors).

Monocytes and macrophages produce numerous bioactive factors: enzymes, complement factors, coagulation factors, reactive oxygen and nitrogen species, angiogenetic factors, binding proteins, bioactive lipids, chemotactic factors, cytokines and growth factors. 

Monocytes: a type of phagocytic leukocytes (agranulocytes) that are part of the innate immune system of vertebrates (including humans). The precursors of monocytes: monoblasts, which originate in the bone marrow; they initially evolve into pro-monocytes, then into monocytes. 

Monocytes: part of the monocyte-phagocytic system. Once migrated into tissues, monocytes can be differentiated into: 

- macrophages (tissues - spleen, alveoli etc);

- histiocyte - connective tissues;

- microglia - CNS;

- osteoclasts - bones;

- Kupfer cells - liver;

- dendritic cells - Langerhans cells (skin), digestive tract, lungs etc.

 Macrophages are a type of white blood cells that engulfs and digests anything that does not have, on its surface, proteins that are specific to healthy body cells (phagocytosis).  



DIFFERENTIAL WHITE BLOOD CELL COUNT/LEUKOCYTE FORMULA

The leukocyte formula - a blood test that assesses the number of the 5 types of leukocytes, expressed as a percentage and in absolute numbers. The leukocyte formula is used in diagnosing the specific cause of some diseases. 

Normal leukocyte values, in percentage:

- neutrophils: 60-70%

- basophils: 0-1%

- eosinophils: 1-4%

- monocytes: 4-8%

- lymphocytes: 25-30%

Leukocytes: also divided into 2 main groups, according to the presence/absence of granulations in the cytoplasm:

- granulocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils; also called polymorphonuclears (multilobed nucleus);

- non-granulocytes: lymphocytes and monocytes; no distinct cytoplasmic granules and have non-lobulate nucleus; also called mononuclear leukocytes. 


RED BLOOD CELLS/ERYTHROCYTES

- the most numerous cells in the blood, anucleate upon maturity and necessary for tissue respiration. Main function: transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Erythrocytes increase and decrease along with the haemoglobin and the haematocrit. Shape: round with narrow centers resembling a donut without a hole in the middle. 

- red blood cells formation: in the red bone marrow of bones. Stem cells in the red bone marrow: hemocytoblasts and give rise to all of the formed elements in the blood. If a cell commits to becoming a cell called a proerythroblast, it will develop into a new red blood cell. 


HAEMOGLOBIN   

- the protein molecule in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues and returns carbon dioxide from the tissues back to the lungs;

- 4 protein molecules (globulin chains) connected together, make up the haemoglobin molecule. Normal adult haemoglobin: 2 alpha-globulin chains and 2 beta-globulin chains. Foetuses and infants: 2 alpha chains and 2 gamma chains (gamma-chains gradually replaced by beta-chains upon growth);

- each globulin chain: iron-containing porphyrin compound termed heme. Embedded within the heme: an iron atom (vital for transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide; gives the red colour of the blood). 

- haemoglobin also gives the shape of the red blood cells; abnormal haemoglobin structure can disrupt the shape of the red blood cells and implicitly their function.


HAEMOGLOBIN CONCENTRATION 

- MEAN CORPUSCULAR HAEMOGLOBIN/MCH - average quantity of haemoglobin in a single red blood cell;

MCH (pg) = [ Haemoglobin (g/dL) / RBC (mil/uL) ] x 10

- MEAN CORPUSCULAR HAEMOGLOBIN CONCENTRATION/MCHC - concentration of haemoglobin in a certain amount of blood;

MCHC (g/dL) = [ Haemoglobin (g/dL) / HCT (%) ] x 100%


HAEMATOCRIT  

- HCT: volume of red blood cells relative to the volume of blood, expressed as a percentage; example: HCT 25%: 25 ml of red blood cells in 100 ml of blood. 

HCT value is used to determine erythrocyte indices: mean erythrocyte volume, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration, mean corpuscular haemoglobin. All of these together are useful for the differential diagnosis of various types of anaemia. 

- also called Packed Cell Volume/PCT


ERYTHROCYTES INDICES 

- MEAN CORPUSCULAR VOLUME (MCV)/MEAN CELL VOLUME/MEAN ERYTHROCYTE VOLUME: average size of red blood cells in a blood sample. MCV represents the volume occupied by a single erythrocyte.  It is a useful index for classifying anaemias and depends on plasma osmolarity and the number of erythrocyte divisions.  

MCV (fL) = [ Hct (%) / RBC (mil/uL) ] x 10

- MEAN ERYTHROCYTE HAEMOGLOBIN/HEM/MCH - see "Haemoglobin concentration";

- WIDTH OF ERYTHROCYTES DISTRIBUTION/RDW - a measurement of the range in the volume and size of the red blood cells (difference in size between the smallest and largest red blood cells in a sample); differentiates between different types of anaemia. 


PLATELETS

Platelets form blood clots to slow down blood loss, to prevent infection and to promote healing. When an injury occurs, platelets aggregate to plug the wound and send hormone signals through the blood to attract protein clotting factors, which assists in repairing the injury. 

Platelets are small, anucleate cells, produced in the bone marrow from the fragmentation of megakaryocytes (are actually pieces of them). Platelets have a role in haemostasis (participating in thrombi formation), as well as a source of growth factors.

- PLATELET COUNT measures the total number of platelets in the blood. 

- MEAN PLATELET VOLUME (MPV) - measure of the average size of the platelets/thrombocytes. The MPV indicates the uniformity of platelet population size. 

- PLATELET DISTRIBUTION WIDTH (PDW) - reflects how uniform the platelets are in size. PDW is a measurement of the variability in platelet size distribution in the blood. A normal PDW indicates platelets that are mostly the same size, while a high PDW means that platelet size varies greatly, a clue that there is platelet activation and has been associated with vascular diseases and certain cancers. 


RETICULOCYTES

- newly produced, non-nucleated, relatively immature red blood cells, that contain residual nucleic acids (RNA); a reticulocyte count (number/percentage of reticulocytes in the blood) - a reflection of recent bone marrow function/activity.

Blood-forming (hematopoietic) stem cells differentiate and develop, eventually forming reticulocytes and finally becoming mature red blood cells. Reticulocytes are visually slightly larger than mature red blood cells. Unlike most other cells in the body, red blood cells have no nucleus, but reticulocytes still have some remnant genetic material (RNA). As reticulocytes mature, they lose the last residual RNA and most are fully developed within one day of being released from the bone marrow into the blood. The reticulocyte count shows the bone marrow's ability to produce red blood cells. 


SUMMARY IMAGE OF BLOOD CELLS: